Talaq
Question
If a woman says before marriage, “every man is haram for me” will she be divorced after marriage when her husband gives her the right?
Can women issue divorce before marriage as men can? Can she have any conditional talaq upon the given right of talaq as man can have conditional talaq upon the marriage itself that can result to direct divorce right after she has the right even though she doesn’t pronounce talaq?
Answer
Wa’alaykum as-Salām wa raḥmatullāhi wa barakātuhu,
A woman does not possess the unilateral right to issue ṭalāq (divorce) as a man does. Therefore, any statements she makes regarding divorce, whether before or after marriage, do not have legal effect.
However, she may initiate divorce through khulʿ (a divorce initiated by the wife, usually in exchange for compensation to the husband) or through tafwīḍ al-ṭalāq (delegated divorce), where the husband grants her the authority to pronounce ṭalāq on his behalf.
And Allah subhanahu wa ta’ala knows best.