Needs answer

My husband and I had been married for 35yrs and we have 4 adult children. We’ve been having issues for more than 10yrs. Back in 2014, he dropped talaq but took me back within 3 months. But, ever since then he we have not been intimate at all. He has not touch me or being intimate with me for more than 8yrs. He even moved out of our bedroom and moved in to my daughter’s old bedroom a little over a year ago after she moved out. My question is; is our marriage till valid if he had refused to be intimate? I am looking to file for a divorce. Would it be wrong for me to ask for a divorce? He has not been supporting me financially or emotionally for a long time. I am working and has been buying most of the groceries and paying my own bills. He pays for rent and utilities. We used to fight a lot and he used harsh words and always tell me to leave. I’ve been mentally abused for a long time. Please advise as I am confused as far as the validity of our marriage. Btw, my husband is a revert.