13 Jan 2022 Ref-No#: 4252

Assalamu Alaykum

Q1) If a man ejaculates and he has not touched any of his private parts when he ejaculated and he has not touched any part of his body when he ejaculated has he committed a sin or not?


Wa ʿAlaykumus Salām Wa Raḥmatullāhi Wa Barakātuh

If the ejaculation was induced by oneself, then one would be sinful. However, if one ejaculates naturally without touching any part of the body, such as in the case of a wet dream, and without having induced the ejaculation, then one would not be sinful.

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